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ACLS Practice Test - click here Note: It is suggested you write down or save the answer you select for each question so that you may easily compare your answers with the correct selection at the end of the PALS practice test. Good luck!
  PALS Practice Test  
Take the free PALS pretest below to prepare you for either of our official online exams. This practice course is contrived of 20 questions with multiple-choice answers that follow current ECC guidelines and PALS provider manuals. Once you've selected your answers, you will immediately be able to determine your score by using the answer key located at the bottom of the test.
1. What is not a typical sign of respiratory distress?
  • tachypnea
  • fever
  • nasal flaring
  • tachycardia

2. What is the most common form of infectious pneumonia which often causes empyema?

  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • chlamydia pneumoniae
  • staphylococcus pneumoniae

3. Children with increased ICP typically will present with all the following except which?

  • irregular breathing
  • bradycardia
  • tachycardia
  • hypertension

4. Shock occurs with which level of blood pressure?

  • decreased
  • increased
  • normal
  • all the above

5. The recommended priority of treatment of ischemic hypoxia is what?

  • oxygen administration
  • increase cardiac output
  • restore hemoglobin concentration
  • none of the above

6. Myocordial dysfunction impairs cardiac output and strock volume which can typically lead to which shock?

  • cardiogenic shock
  • septic shock
  • anaphylactic shock
  • neurogenic shock

7. What should be the first priority when assisting a critically ill or injured child in shock?

  • oxygen administration
  • monitoring
  • positioning
  • fluid resuscitation

8. Which is not a common assessment when determining the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation?

  • temperature
  • heart rate
  • skin coloration
  • urine output

9. Monitoring of continuous arterial blood pressure can be accomplished with placement of a __________.

  • central venous catheter
  • aterial catheter
  • pulmonary artery catheter
  • none of the above

10. To treat cold shock, _____________ is preferred.

  • dopamine
  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
  • dobutamine

11. For cardiogenic shock, you should deliver a fluid challenge (5 to 10 mL/kg bolus) over what length of time?

  • 1-5 minutes
  • 5-10 minutes
  • 10-20 minutes
  • under 3 minutes

12. ______________ is described as an accumulation of pressurized air in the pleural space.

  • tension pneumothorax
  • cardiac tamponade
  • massive pulmonary embolism
  • none of the above

13. In a case of sinus tachycardia, the heart rate is ___________.

  • increased
  • decreased
  • unsteady
  • faint

14. Ventricular tachycardia is common in children.

  • true
  • false

15. What is the first sign of the body's defensive response when a child or infant is in shock?

  • body temperature drop
  • body temperature rise
  • heart rate increase
  • heart rate decrease

16. Each attempt for catheter insertion and suctioning of an infant should not surpass:

  • 3 seconds
  • 5 seconds
  • 7 seconds
  • 10 seconds

17. The first warning sign of respiratory dysfunction is:

  • decrease of heart rate
  • increase in blood pressure
  • increase in respiratory rate
  • decrease in body temperature

18. During resuscitation of a newborn infant, the blow-by oxygen rate of flow should always be more than:

  • 2 L/min.
  • 5 L/min.
  • 6 L/min.
  • 8 L/min.

19. What age period is croup most common to occur?

  • 3 - 5 years
  • 6 months - 3 years
  • 4 - 7 years
  • 1 month - 12 months

20. What is the recommended first energy level used for defibrillation?

  • 0.3 joules/kg.
  • 1.5 joules/kg.
  • 2.0 joules/kg.
  • 2.5 joules/kg.

 
ACLS Practice Test

We encourage all applicants considering our ACLS online exams to take this free pretest in order to help prepare for either actual test. Like our official examination, this free practice test is not timed and scores can be calculated using the answer key located at the end of the test. This pretest is contrived of 25 questions with multiple-choice answer options. Those who score well on this practice exercise typically will also successfully pass either of our official online exams.

Note: It is suggested you write down or save the answer you select for each question so that you may easily compare your answers with the correct selection at the end of the ACLS practice test. Good luck!


1. What are the ABCD assessments of the BLS Primary Survey?
  • airway, blood pressure, circulation, defibrillation
  • airway, breathing, circulation, defibrillation
  • air, breathing, cardiac arrest, defibrillation
  • airway, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis
2. What are the ABCD assessments of the ACLS Secondary Survey?
  • airway, blood pressure, circulation, defibrillation
  • airway, breathing, circulation, defibrillation
  • air, breathing, cardiac arrest, defibrillation
  • airway, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis
3. How often should a patient be ventilated if they are experiencing respiratory arrest?
  • Once every 7 to 8 seconds or 10 to 12 times per minute
  • Once every 8 to 9 seconds or 8 to 10 times per minute
  • Once every 5 to 6 seconds or 10 to 12 times per minute
  • Once every 2 to 3 seconds or 15 to 17 times per minute
4. What are the risks associated with Hyperventilation?
  • Decreased venous return to the heart
  • Diminished cardiac outpu
  • Increases intrathoracic pressure
  • All of the above
5. The target oxygen saturation that should be maintained is ____________ .
  • 90%
  • 85%
  • 95%
  • 97%
6. Which basic airway skill is the most commonly used method for providing positive-pressure ventilation?
  • Mouth-to-mouth
  • Mouth-to-barrier device
  • Bag-mask ventilation
  • Jaw thrust without head extension
7. A Rigid Catheter type is more effective than a Soft Catheter type for which of the following uses:
  • More effective suctioning of the oropharynx
  • Aspiration of thin secretions from the oropharynx and nasopharynx
  • Performing intratracheal suctioning
  • Suctioning through an in-place airway to access the back of the pharynx in a patient with clenched teeth
8. One cycle of CPR consists of ___________.
  • 30 compressions then 2 breaths
  • 20 compressions then 2 breaths
  • 30 compressions then 3 breaths
  • 20 compressions then 3 breaths
9. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered for one shock?
  • 270-J
  • 320-J
  • 360-J
  • 390-J
9. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered for one shock?
  • 270-J
  • 320-J
  • 360-J
  • 390-J
10. Which one of the following is not a common cause of PEA?
  • Hypoxia
  • Thoracic damage
  • Toxins
  • Thrombosis
11. Which of the following are the two most easily reversible causes of PEA?
  • Hypovolemia and Trauma
  • Thrombosis and Trauma
  • Hypoglycemia and Hypoxia
  • Tension pneumothorax and Hypoxia
12. Cardiac arrest rhythm associated with no discernible electrical activity on the ECG is__________.
  • Acute Coronary Syndrome
  • Bradycardia
  • Pulseless Electric Activity
  • Aystole
13. Which of the following is (are) an Acute Coronary Syndrome?
  • Plaque pupture
  • Microemboli
  • Unstable angina
  • All of the above
14. Which of the following is not a recommended agent to be administered to patients under evaluation for ACS?
  • Morphine
  • Epinephrine
  • Aspirin
  • Nitroglycerin
15. Which of the following is a standard treatment procedure for patients with STEMI?
  • Reperfusion therapy
  • Use of a soft catheter
  • Defibrillation
  • Administration of morphine
16. A rhythm disorder with a heart rate of less than 60 bpm is ____________ .
  • Acute Coronary Syndrome
  • Bradycardia
  • Pulseless Electric Activity
  • Ventricular Fibrillation
17. What is an adverse sign of bradycardia?
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypertension
  • Chest pain
  • Impaired speech
18. TCP is not a recommended treatment for which of the following?
  • Standby pacing
  • Bracycardia with escape rhythms
  • Asystole
  • Hemodynamically significant bradyarrhythmia
19. A rhythm disorder with a heart rate of greater than 100 bpm is __________.
  • Acute Coronary Syndrome
  • Bradycardia
  • Ventricular Fibrillation
  • Tachyarrthythmia
20. Which of the following is a recommended agent to be administered to patients under evaluation for unstable tachycardia?
  • No agents are recommended
  • Morphine
  • Oxygen
  • Aspirin
21. Which of the following is not a symptom of unstable tachycardia?
  • Shortness of breath
  • Blurred vision
  • Altered mental status
  • Fatigue
22. Which of the following is not one of the 7 D’s of Stroke Care?
  • Dispatch
  • Delivery
  • Dispense
  • Data
23. An Ischemic stroke…
  • Accounts for 75% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain.
  • Accounts for 85% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of vein to a region of the brain.
  • Accounts for 85% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain.
  • Accounts for 15% of all strokes and occurs when a blood vessel in the brain suddenly ruptures in to the surrounding tissue.
24. Which of the following is not one of the 3 physical findings that the CPSS uses to indentify strokes?
  • Facial drops
  • Vertigo
  • Arm drift
  • Abnormal speech
25. Warning signs and symptoms of a stroke include:
  • Trouble speaking, dizziness, sudden severe headache, sudden confusion
  • Sudden numbness, shortness of breath, sudden severe headache, sudden confusion
  • Trouble seeing in one eye, dizziness, vomiting, sudden confusion
  • Trouble speaking, dizziness, sudden severe headache, memory loss